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salm 16:8-11 is clearly a Messianic prophecy (Acts 2:25-30),
but what about the first 7 verses of Psalm 16?
Well, I'm not sure how it all fits together, but of those 7 verses, I
confess that verses 2 & 3 are the hardest to interpret. If in Psalm 16:2
David was decrying his own goodness compared to the goodness of God, fine. But, where does the rest of the sentence fit
in? David's goodness did extend to the
saints around him? I'm suddenly lost.
Perhaps the verses are a reference to the benefit of
Christ's earthly service and ministry.
There was no lack in the Father that He would need to have additional
goodness contributed in His direction.
The Father is the spring, reservoir and source of all goodness, not a
needy recipient of it. The plan of
redemption is aimed squarely at the elect of God (Acts 13:48). We are the needy ones. Of course, there are many others who are
needy also, but their willingness to be distracted by the appeal of petty gods
prevents the one true God from effectively extending to them the gospel
goodness which could connect them to Him (Matthew 7:23).
Concerning the rest of the Psalm: in verses 1 & 5 we can
see both David's and Jesus' dependence upon the Father. Verse 6 reminds us of the heavenly
inheritance which we share as sons of God (Romans 8:17 & Ephesians 1:3
& 2:6). Verse 7 speaks then of the
guidance and direction which Christ had... and which we have also (Matthew 4:1,
Mark 2:8 & Romans 8:14).
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